What Can an Administrator Configure for Users on the Search Result Page Choose 3 Answers

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1. Which statement best describes a WAN?

• A WAN interconnects LANs over long distances.*
• A WAN is a public utility that enables access to the Internet.
• WAN is some other name for the Internet.
• A WAN is a LAN that is extended to provide secure remote network access.

ii. Connecting offices at different locations using the Net tin exist economical for a business. What are two important business organisation policy issues that should be addressed when using the Net for this purpose? (Choose two.)

• addressing
• bandwidth
• privacy*
• security*
• WAN technology

3. What is a disadvafntage of a bundle-switched network compared to a circuit-switched network?

• higher cost
• fixed chapters
• less flexibility
• higher latency*

4. A company is because updating the campus WAN connectedness. Which two WAN options are examples of the private WAN architecture? (Cull two.)

• cable
• leased line*
• Ethernet WAN*
• municipal Wi-Fi
• digital subscriber line

v. Which statement describes a characteristic of dense wavelength division multiplexing (DWDM)?

• It supports the SONET standard, but non the SDH standard.
• Information technology enables bidirectional communications over one pair of copper cables.
• Information technology can exist used in long-range communications, like connections between ISPs.*
• It assigns incoming electrical signals to specific frequencies.

6. Which WAN engineering can serve as the underlying network to carry multiple types of network traffic such equally IP, ATM, Ethernet, and DSL?

• ISDN
• MPLS*
• Frame Relay
• Ethernet WAN

7. Which two WAN technologies are more likely to be used by a business than past teleworkers or home users? (Choose two.)

• cable
• DSL
• Frame Relay*
• MetroE*
• VPN

eight. The security policy in a company specifies that the staff in the sales department must utilize a VPN to connect to the corporate network to access the sales data when they travel to meet customers. What component is needed past the sales staff to constitute a remote VPN connection?

• VPN gateway
• VPN appliance
• VPN concentrator
• VPN customer software*

9. How many DS0 channels are bundled to produce a 1.544 Mbps T1 line?

• 2
• 12
• 24*
• 28

ten. What function is provided by Multilink PPP?

• spreading traffic across multiple physical WAN links*
• dividing the bandwidth of a unmarried link into separate time slots
• enabling traffic from multiple VLANs to travel over a unmarried Layer 2 link
• creating one logical link between 2 LAN switches via the use of multiple concrete links

11. Refer to the showroom. A network administrator is configuring the PPP link between the routers R1 and R2. Withal, the link cannot be established. Based on the partial output of the show running-config command, what is the cause of the trouble?

• The usernames practise non match each other.
• The usernames do not match the host names.*
• The passwords for CHAP should be in lowercase.
• The username r1 should be configured on the router R1 and the username r2 should exist configured on the router R2.

12. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured routers RTA and RTB, only cannot ping from serial interface to serial interface. Which layer of the OSI model is the most likely cause of the problem?

• application
• transport
• network
• information link*
• concrete

13. What advantage does DSL have compared to cablevision technology?

• DSL upload and download speeds are e'er the aforementioned.
• DSL is faster.
• DSL has no altitude limitations.
• DSL is not a shared medium.*

14. Which broadband technology would be all-time for a user that needs remote access when traveling in mountains and at bounding main?

• Wi-Fi Mesh
• mobile broadband
• WiMax
• satellite*

15. Which technology requires the use of PPPoE to provide PPP connections to customers?

• dialup analog modem
• dialup ISDN modem
• DSL*
• T1

16. Refer to the exhibit. What is the network administrator verifying when issuing the bear witness ip interface cursory command on R1 in respect to the PPPoE connection to R2?

• that the Dialer1 interface has been manually assigned an IP address
• that the Dialer1 interface is up and up
• that the Dialer1 interface has been assigned an IP accost by the ISP router*
• that the IP address on R1 G0/1 is in the aforementioned network range equally the DSL modem

17. Which engineering creates a mapping of public IP addresses for remote tunnel spokes in a DMVPN configuration?

• ARP
• NHRP*
• NAT
• IPsec

18. What is the purpose of the generic routing encapsulation tunneling protocol?

• to provide packet level encryption of IP traffic between remote sites
• to manage the transportation of IP multicast and multiprotocol traffic between remote sites*
• to back up bones unencrypted IP tunneling using multivendor routers between remote sites
• to provide fixed flow-command mechanisms with IP tunneling between remote sites

xix. Refer to the showroom. What is used to exchange routing data between routers within each AS?

• static routing
• IGP routing protocols*
• EGP routing protocols
• default routing

20. Which IPv4 address range covers all IP addresses that lucifer the ACL filter specified past 172.sixteen.2.0 with wildcard mask 0.0.i.255?

• 172.16.2.0 to 172.16.2.255
• 172.xvi.two.1 to 172.16.3.254
• 172.16.ii.0 to 172.16.3.255*
• 172.16.two.1 to 172.sixteen.255.255

21. Refer to the exhibit. A named access listing called chemistry_block has been written to prevent users on the Chemical science Network and public Internet from access to Records Server. All other users within the schoolhouse should have access to this server. The list contains the following statements:

deny 172.16.102.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.104.252 0.0.0.0
permit 172.xvi.0.0 0.0.255.255 172.16.104.252 0.0.0.0

Which command sequence will place this list to encounter these requirements?

• Hera(config)# interface fa0/0
  Hera(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block in
• Hera(config)# interface s0/0/0
  Hera(config-if)# ip access-grouping chemistry_block out
• Apollo(config)# interface s0/0/0
  Apollo(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block out
• Apollo(config)# interface s0/0/1
  Apollo(config-if)# ip admission-group chemistry_block in
• Athena(config)# interface fa0/0
  Athena(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block out*

22. What guideline is mostly followed well-nigh the placement of extended admission control lists?

• They should exist placed as close every bit possible to the source of the traffic to exist denied.*
• They should be placed as close as possible to the destination of the traffic to be denied.
• They should be placed on the fastest interface available.
• They should be placed on the destination WAN link.

23. In the creation of an IPv6 ACL, what is the purpose of the implicit final control entries, allow icmp whatever whatever nd-na and permit icmp whatever any nd-ns?

• to let IPv6 to MAC address resolution*
• to let forwarding of IPv6 multicast packets
• to allow automated address configuration
• to allow forwarding of ICMPv6 packets

24. A network administrator is testing IPv6 connectivity to a spider web server. The network administrator does non want whatever other host to connect to the web server except for the one test calculator. Which type of IPv6 ACL could be used for this situation?

• but a standard ACL
• a standard or extended ACL
• merely an extended ACL
• an extended, named, or numbered ACL
• only a named ACL*

25. Refer to the exhibit. The IPv6 access list LIMITED_ACCESS is practical on the S0/0/0 interface of R1 in the entering management. Which IPv6 packets from the Internet service provider will be dropped by the ACL on R1?

• HTTPS packets to PC1
• ICMPv6 packets that are destined to PC1*
• packets that are destined to PC1 on port lxxx
• neighbour advertisements that are received from the Internet service provider router

26. What is a secure configuration choice for remote access to a network device?

• Configure SSH.*
• Configure Telnet.
• Configure 802.1x.
• Configure an ACL and apply information technology to the VTY lines.

27. What protocol should be disabled to help mitigate VLAN attacks?

• DTP*
• STP
• CDP
• ARP

28. Which term describes the office of a Cisco switch in the 802.1X port-based admission control?

• agent
• supplicant
• authenticator*
• hallmark server

29. What two protocols are supported on Cisco devices for AAA communications? (Choose 2.)

• VTP
• LLDP
• HSRP
• RADIUS*
• TACACS+*

30. In configuring SNMPv3, what is the purpose of creating an ACL?

• to define the source traffic that is allowed to create a VPN tunnel
• to ascertain the type of traffic that is allowed on the management network
• to specify the source addresses allowed to access the SNMP agent*
• to ascertain the protocols immune to be used for authentication and encryption

31. Refer to the exhibit. What characteristic does an SNMP manager need in order to be able to set a parameter on switch ACSw1?

• a manager who is using an SNMP string of K44p0ut
• a manager who is using an Inform Request MIB
• a managing director who is using host 192.168.0.5*
• a manager who is using authPriv

32. Which Cisco characteristic sends copies of frames entering 1 port to a different port on the same switch in social club to perform traffic analysis?

• CSA
• HIPS
• SPAN*
• VLAN

33. What are two characteristics of video traffic? (Choose two.)

• Video traffic is more resilient to loss than vocalisation traffic is.
• Video traffic is unpredictable and inconsistent.*
• Video traffic latency should not exceed 400 ms.*
• Video traffic requires a minimum of 30 kbs of bandwidth.
• Video traffic consumes less network resources than voice traffic consumes.

34. Which QoS mechanism allows delay-sensitive data, such as voice, to be sent kickoff before packets in other queues are sent?

• CBWFQ
• FIFO
• LLQ*
• FCFS

35. Refer to the showroom. As traffic is forwarded out an egress interface with QoS treatment, which congestion abstention technique is used?

• traffic shaping*
• weighted random early on detection
• classification and mark
• traffic policing

36. Which type of QoS marking is applied to Ethernet frames?

• CoS*
• ToS
• DSCP
• IP precedence

37. What is the function of a QoS trust boundary?

• A trust boundary identifies the location where traffic cannot exist remarked.
• A trust boundary identifies which devices trust the marking on packets that enter a network.*
• A trust boundary just allows traffic to enter if it has previously been marked.
• A trust boundary only allows traffic from trusted endpoints to enter the network.

38. A vibration sensor on an automated production line detects an unusual condition. The sensor communicates with a controller that automatically shuts downwards the line and activates an alarm. What type of advice does this scenario stand for?

• machine-to-people
• machine-to-machine*
• people-to-people
• people-to-motorcar

39. Which pillar of the Cisco IoT System allows data to be analyzed and managed at the location where it is generated?

• data analytics
• fog computing*
• network connectivity
• awarding enhancement platform

twoscore. Which Cloud calculating service would be best for a new organization that cannot beget physical servers and networking equipment and must buy network services on-need?

• PaaS
• SaaS
• ITaaS
• IaaS*

41. A information middle has recently updated a physical server to host multiple operating systems on a single CPU. The data center can at present provide each customer with a separate spider web server without having to classify an actual discrete server for each customer. What is the networking trend that is being implemented by the data middle in this situation?

• BYOD
• virtualization*
• maintaining communication integrity
• online collaboration

42. What is used to pre-populate the adjacency table on Cisco devices that utilize CEF to process packets?

• the ARP table*
• the routing table
• the FIB
• the DSP

43. What is the wildcard mask that is associated with the network 128.165.216.0/23?

• 0.0.0.255
• 0.0.1.254
• 0.0.1.255*
• 0.0.ane.0
• 0.0.0.254

44. What two features are added in SNMPv3 to address the weaknesses of previous versions of SNMP? (Choose two.)

• encryption*
• hallmark*
• potency with community string priority
• ACL management filtering
• bulk MIB objects retrieval

45. Which component of the ACI compages translates application policies into network programming?

• the Nexus 9000 switch
• the Application Network Profile endpoints
• the Application Policy Infrastructure Controller*
• the hypervisor

46. Which 2 pieces of data should be included in a logical topology diagram of a network? (Choose two.)

• device type
• Os/IOS version
• connection type*
• interface identifier*
• cable specification
• cablevision blazon and identifier

47. Which network performance statistics should be measured in order to verify SLA compliance?

• NAT translation statistics
• device CPU and retentiveness utilization
• latency, jitter, and packet loss*
• the number of error messages that are logged on the syslog server

48. Which feature sends false information across the network and measures performance between multiple network locations?

• LLDP
• IP SLA*
• syslog
• SPAN

49. Which troubleshooting tool would a network ambassador utilize to check the Layer 2 header of frames that are leaving a item host?

• protocol analyzer*
• baselining tool
• knowledge base
• CiscoView

l. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF network. The x.ten.0.0/16 network is non showing up in the routing table of Router1. What is the probable crusade of this problem?

• The serial interface on Router2 is downwards.
• The OSPF process is not running on Router2.
• The OSPF process is configured incorrectly on Router1.
• There is an incorrect wildcard mask argument for network ten.ten.0.0/xvi on Router2.*

51. Refer to the exhibit. A user turns on a PC after it is serviced and calls the help desk to report that the PC seems unable to reach the Internet. The technician asks the user to effect the arp –a and ipconfig commands. Based on the output, what are two possible causes of the trouble? (Choose two.)

• The IP configuration is incorrect.*
• The network cable is unplugged.
• The DNS server address is not configured.
• The subnet mask is configured incorrectly.
• The default gateway device cannot be contacted.*

52. Which circumstance would result in an enterprise deciding to implement a corporate WAN?

• when its employees become distributed across many co-operative locations*
• when the network will bridge multiple buildings
• when the number of employees exceeds the capacity of the LAN
• when the enterprise decides to secure its corporate LAN

52. Match QoS techniques with the description. (Non all options are used.)

• Backlog traffic is retained in a queue and scheduled for later manual over increments of time –> traffic shaping
• Excess traffic is dropped when the traffic rate reaches a preconfigured maximum –> traffic policing
• This determines the grade of traffic to which frames belong –> classification
• A value is added to a packer header –> marker

53. What are 2 types of WAN providers? (Choose two.)

• DNS servers
• satellite service*
• web hosting service
• telephone visitor*
• Internet search engine service

54. Which two types of devices are specific to WAN environments and are non found on a LAN? (Choose 2.)

• admission layer switch
• broadband modem *
• core switch
• CSU/DSU *
• distribution layer router

55. What is a feature of dense wavelength-segmentation multiplexing (DWDM) technology?

• It replaces SONET and SDH technologies.
• Information technology enables bidirectional communications over one strand of cobweb.*
• It provides Layer 3 support for long altitude information communications.
• Information technology provides a ten Gb/s multiplexed point over analog copper telephone lines.

56. What is a disadvantage of ATM compared to Frame Relay?

• less efficient*
• lacks SVC support
• does non scale well to provide high speed WAN connections
• requires multiple interfaces on the edge router to support multiple VCs

57. Which WAN solution uses labels to identify the path in sending packets through a provider network?

• cablevision
• DSL
• Frame Relay
• MPLS*
• VSAT

58. An intercity bus company wants to offer abiding Internet connectivity to the users traveling on the buses. Which two types of WAN infrastructure would meet the requirements? (Choose two.)

• private infrastructure
• public infrastructure*
• defended
• excursion-switched
• cellular*

59. What device is needed at a central function to aggregate many digital subscriber lines from customers?

• CMTS
• DSLAM*
• CSU/DSU
• admission server

60. A corporation is searching for an easy and low cost solution to provide teleworkers with a secure connection to headquarters. Which solution should be selected?

• dial-up connexion
• leased line connection
• site-to-site VPN over the Net
• remote access VPN over the Internet*

61. What is the maximum number of DS0 channels in a i.544 Mbps T1 line?

• 2
• 12
• 24*
• 28

62. Refer to the exhibit. What type of Layer 2 encapsulation will be used for RtrA connection D if information technology is left to the default and the router is a Cisco router?

• Ethernet
• Frame Relay
• HDLC*
• PPP

63. Which two functions are provided by the NCP during a PPP connection? (Choose two.)

• identifying mistake conditions for the PPP link
• providing multilink capabilities over the PPP link
• bringing the network layer protocol or protocols upwards and downward*
• enhancing security past providing callback over PPP
• negotiating options for the IP protocol*
• managing authentication of the peer routers of the PPP link

64. What PPP data will be displayed if a network engineer bug the show ppp multilink command on Cisco router?

• the link LCP and NCP status
• the queuing type on the link
• the IP addresses of the link interfaces
• the serial interfaces participating in the multilink*

65. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the status of the PPP connexion?

• Merely the link-establishment phase completed successfully.
• Only the network-layer stage completed successfully.
• Neither the link-establishment stage nor the network-layer phase completed successfully.
• Both the link-establishment and network-layer stage completed successfully.*

66. A network administrator is configuring a PPP link with the commands:
R1(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
R1(config-if)# ppp quality 70
What is the event of these commands?

• The PPP link will be closed down if the link quality drops below 70 percent.*
• The NCP will ship a message to the sending device if the link usage reaches lxx percent.
• The LCP establishment phase will not start until the bandwidth reaches 70 per centum or more.
• The PPP link volition not be established if more than than 30 percentage of options cannot be accustomed.

67. How does virtualization help with disaster recovery within a data center?

• Power is always provided.
• Less energy is consumed.
• Server provisioning is faster.
• Hardware does not have to be identical.*

68. Which broadband solution is advisable for a abode user who needs a wired connection not limited by distance?

• cable*
• DSL
• WiMax
• ADSL

69. What is the protocol that provides ISPs the ability to send PPP frames over DSL networks?

• PPPoE*
• CHAP
• ADSL
• LTE

70. In software divers network architecture, what function is removed from network devices and performed past an SDN controller?

• command plane*
• information plane
• security
• awarding policies

71. What would a network ambassador expect the routing table of stub router R1 to await like if connectivity to the ISP was established via a PPPoE configuration?

• 192.168.1.0/32 is subnetted, two subnetted
  C 192.168.1.ane is directly connected, Dialer1
  C 192.168.1.two is directly connected, Dialer2
• S* 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, Dialer1
• 192.168.1.0/32 is subnetted, 2 subnetted
  C 192.168.i.1 is direct connected, Dialer
• South* 0.0.0.0/0 is direct continued, Dialer1
  192.168.ane.0/32 is subnetted, ii subnetted
  C 192.168.one.1 is directly connected, Dialer1
  C 192.168.1.2 is direct connected, Dialer1

72. What is a do good of implementing a Dynamic Multipoint VPN network design?

• A DMVPN volition employ an encrypted session and does non crave IPsec.
• A DMVPN uses a Layer three protocol, NHRP, to dynamically institute tunnels.
• A DMVPN volition support remote peers by providing a mapping database of public IP addresses to each one.*
• A DMVPN uses mGRE to create multiple GRE interfaces that each back up a unmarried VPN tunnel.

73. Which remote admission implementation scenario volition back up the use of generic routing encapsulation tunneling?

• a mobile user who connects to a router ata primal site
• a branch function that connects securely to a primal site
• a mobile user who connects to a SOHO site
• a primal site that connects to a SOHO site without encryption*

74. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are successfully running the BGP routing protocol. How many routers must use EBGP in order to share routing information across the autonomous systems?

• 2
• 3
• iv*
• 5

75. Which argument describes a characteristic of standard IPv4 ACLs?

• They are configured in the interface configuration style.
• They filter traffic based on source IP addresses only.*
• They can exist created with a number but not with a proper noun.
• They can be configured to filter traffic based on both source IP addresses and source ports.

76. Which iii values or sets of values are included when creating an extended access command listing entry? (Choose three.)

• access list number between 1 and 99
• access list number between 100 and 199*
• default gateway address and wildcard mask
• destination address and wildcard mask*
• source address and wildcard mask*
• source subnet mask and wildcard mask
• destination subnet mask and wildcard mask

77. Refer to the exhibit. A router has an existing ACL that permits all traffic from the 172.sixteen.0.0 network. The administrator attempts to add a new ACE to the ACL that denies packets from host 172.xvi.0.i and receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit. What action can the administrator take to block packets from host 172.16.0.1 while withal permitting all other traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network?

• Manually add together the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 5.*
• Manually add the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 15.
• Create a second access listing denying the host and apply it to the same interface.
• Add a deny whatsoever whatsoever ACE to access-list 1.

78. Which three implicit admission control entries are automatically added to the cease of an IPv6 ACL? (Choose three.)

• deny ip any any
• deny ipv6 any whatsoever*
• permit ipv6 any whatsoever
• deny icmp whatsoever any
• permit icmp any whatsoever nd-ns*
• permit icmp any whatever nd-na*

79. The computers used past the network administrators for a school are on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. Which two commands are needed at a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only devices that are used by the network administrators will exist allowed Telnet admission to the routers? (Choose two.)

• access-form 5 in*
• admission-listing v deny whatsoever
• access-list standard VTY
• let 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.127
• access-listing 5 permit ten.seven.0.0 0.0.0.31*
• ip access-group v out
• ip access-grouping 5 in

eighty. A network ambassador is adding ACLs to a new IPv6 multirouter environs. Which IPv6 ACE is automatically added implicitly at the finish of an ACL so that two adjacent routers can discover each other?

• let ip any any
• allow ip any host ip_address
• let icmp any whatever nd-na*
• deny ip whatsoever any

81. What would be the primary reason an assailant would launch a MAC address overflow set on?

• so that the switch stops forwarding traffic
• so that legitimate hosts cannot obtain a MAC accost
• and so that the assailant can encounter frames that are destined for other hosts*
• so that the attacker can execute arbitrary code on the switch

82. What are three of the six core components in the Cisco IoT system? (Choose three.)

• fog computing*
• wearable technologies
• information analytics*
• robot guides
• cyber and physical security*
• smart bandages

83. What security countermeasure is effective for preventing CAM tabular array overflow attacks?

• port security*
• DHCP snooping
• IP source baby-sit
• Dynamic ARP Inspection

84. Which SNMP characteristic provides a solution to the primary disadvantage of SNMP polling?

• SNMP gear up messages
• SNMP trap messages*
• SNMP become letters
• SNMP community strings

85. When SNMPv1 or SNMPv2 is existence used, which feature provides secure access to MIB objects?

• packet encryption
• message integrity
• customs strings*
• source validationfeatures

86. What two are added in SNMPv3 to address the weaknesses of previous versions of SNMP? (Cull two.)

• bulk MIB objects retrieval
• encryption*
• say-so with community string priority
• hallmark*
• ACL management filtering

87. Which queuing mechanism supports user-defined traffic classes?

• FIFO
• CBWFQ*
• WFQ
• FCFS

88. Which field is used to mark Layer ii Ethernet frames for QoS treatment?

• Type of Service field
• Traffic Grade field
• Priority field*
• Version field

89. What is an example of deject computing?

• a continuous interaction between people, processes, data, and things
• a service that offers on-demand admission to shared resources*
• a network infrastructure that spans a big geographic surface area
• an architectural mode of the World wide web

90. Which type of resource are required for a Blazon 1 hypervisor?

• a host operating system
• a server running VMware Fusion
• a direction panel*
• a dedicated VLAN

91. A network technician made a configuration change on the core router in club to solve a trouble. However, the problem is non solved. Which step should the technician accept next?

• Gather symptoms.
• Isolate the problem.
• Restore the previous configuration.*
• Implement the next possible corrective activeness.

92. A user reports that when the corporate spider web page URL is entered on a spider web browser, an fault message indicates that the page cannot exist displayed. The assist-desk technician asks the user to enter the IP address of the spider web server to run into if the page can be displayed. Which troubleshooting method is being used by the technician?

• height-downwards
• lesser-upwardly
• substitution
• divide-and-conquer*

93. What is a chief function of the Cisco IOS IP Service Level Agreements characteristic?

• to observe potential network attacks
• to provide network connectivity for customers
• to arrange network device configurations to avoid congestion
• to measure network performance and discover a network failure as early as possible*

94. Which IOS log message level indicates the highest severity level?

• level 0*
• level 1
• level iv
• level 7

95. Which symptom is an example of network bug at the network layer?

• A misconfigured firewall blocks traffic to a file server.
• There are likewise many invalid frames transmitted in the network.
• Neighbor adjacency is formed with some routers, just non all routers.*
• A spider web server cannot be reached by its domain name, but can exist reached via its IP address.

96. Refer to the exhibit. H1 can only ping H2, H3, and the Fa0/0 interface of router R1. H2 and H3 can ping H4 and H5. Why might H1 not exist able to successfully ping H4 and H5?

• Router R1 does non accept a route to the destination network.
• Switch S1 does not have an IP address configured.
• The link between router R1 and switch S2 has failed.
• Host H1 does not take a default gateway configured.*
• Hosts H4 and H5 are members of a different VLAN than host H1.

97. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output, which two statements nearly network connectivity are correct? (Choose ii.)

• There is connectivity between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.*
• The connectivity between these two hosts allows for videoconferencing calls.
• There are four hops between this device and the device at 192.168.100.i.*
• The average manual time between the two hosts is 2 milliseconds.
• This host does not have a default gateway configured.

98. Make full in the blanks. Employ dotted decimal format.
The wildcard mask that is associated with 128.165.216.0/23 is 0.0.1.255

99. Match the characteristic to the appropriate hallmark protocol. (Not all options are used.)

100. Lucifer the term to the description. (Not all options are used.)

101. What is a primary departure betwixt a company LAN and the WAN services that it uses?

• The company must subscribe to an external WAN service provider.*
• The company has direct command over its WAN links only non over its LAN.
• Each LAN has a specified demarcation point to clearly separate access layer and distribution layer equipment.
• The LAN may use a number of different network admission layer standards whereas the WAN will employ only one standard.

102. To which two layers of the OSI model do WAN technologies provide services? (Choose ii.)

• network layer
• session layer
• physical layer*
• ship layer
• data link layer*
• presentation layer

103. Which 2 technologies are private WAN technologies? (Choose two.)

• cable
• Frame Relay*
• DSL
• ATM*
• cellular

104. Which WAN technology can switch any blazon of payload based on labels?

• PSTN
• DSL
• MPLS*
• T1/E1

105. What engineering tin be used to create a private WAN via satellite communications?

• VPN
• 3G/4G cellular
• dialup
• VSAT*
• WiMAX

106. Which public WAN access technology utilizes copper phone lines to provide access to subscribers that are multiplexed into a unmarried T3 link connection?

• ISDN
• DSL*
• dialup
• cable

107. How many DS0 channels are divisional to produce a 1.544 Mb/southward DS1 line?

• 2
• 12
• 24*
• 28

108. Refer to the exhibit. Advice between 2 peers has failed. Based on the output that is shown, what is the almost probable cause?

• interface reset
• unplugged cablevision
• improper cable blazon
• PPP issue*

109. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Layer 2 encapsulation used for connexion D requires Cisco routers?

• Ethernet
• PPPoE
• HDLC*
• PP

110. Which three statements are truthful nearly PPP? (Choose 3.)

• PPP can use synchronous and asynchronous circuits.*
• PPP can merely be used between two Cisco devices.
• PPP carries packets from several network layer protocols in LCPs.
• PPP uses LCPs to establish, configure, and test the data-link connection.*
• PPP uses LCPs to agree on format options such as authentication, pinch, and error detection.*

111. A network ambassador is evaluating hallmark protocols for a PPP link. Which 3 factors might pb to the selection of CHAP over PAP as the hallmark protocol? (Choose three.)

• establishes identities with a ii-way handshake
• uses a three-way authentication periodically during the session to reconfirm identities*
• control by the remote host of the frequency and timing of login events
• transmits login information in encrypted format*
• uses an unpredictable variable challenge value to prevent playback attacks*
• makes authorized network ambassador intervention a requirement to plant each session

112. Which cellular or mobile wireless standard is considered a fourth generation engineering science?

• LTE*
• GSM
• CDMA
• UMTS

113. A visitor is looking for the least expensive broadband solution that provides at least ten Mb/s download speed. The visitor is located five miles from the nearest provider. Which broadband solution would exist appropriate?

• satellite
• DSL
• WiMax
• cable*

114. Which technology can ISPs use to periodically challenge broadband customers over DSL networks with PPPoE?

• PAP
• CHAP*
• HDLC
• Frame
• Relay

115. What are the 3 core components of the Cisco ACI architecture? (Choose three.)

• Application Network Profile*
• Application Policy Infrastructure Controller*
• Cisco Nexus Switches*
• Microsoft hypervisor
• Cisco Data Server
• Virtual Security Gateway

116. Which statement describes a feature of site-to-site VPNs?

• The VPN connection is not statically defined.
• VPN customer software is installed on each host.
• Internal hosts transport normal, unencapsulated packets.*
• Individual hosts tin enable and disable the VPN connection.

117. What are three features of a GRE tunnel? (Choose iii.)

• creates nonsecure tunnels between remote sites*
• transports multiple Layer iii protocols*
• creates additional packet overhead*
• uses RSA signatures to cosign peeers
• provides encryption to proceed VPN traffic confidential
• supports hosts as GRE tunnel endpoints past installing Cisco VPN client software

118. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands are needed to complete the GRE tunnel configuration on router R1? (Choose 2.)

• R1(config-if)# tunnel source 209.165.202.129*
• R1(config-if)# tunnel source 172.16.two.ane
• R1(config-if)# tunnel destination 206.165.202.130*
• R1(config-if)# tunnel destination 172.16.2.ii
• R1(config-if)# tunnel source 209.165.202.130
• R1(config-if)# tunnel destination 206.165.202.129

119. What does BGP utilise to exchange routing updates with neighbors?

• TCP connections*
• area numbers
• grouping identification numbers
• hellos

120. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator that has the IP address of x.0.lxx.23/25 needs to have access to the corporate FTP server (10.0.54.5/28). The FTP server is also a web server that is accessible to all internal employees on networks within the ten.x.x.x address. No other traffic should be allowed to this server. Which extended ACL would be used to filter this traffic, and how would this ACL be practical? (Cull ii.)

• admission-list 105 permit ip host 10.0.lxx.23 host ten.0.54.5
  access-list 105 permit tcp whatsoever host 10.0.54.5 eq www
  admission-list 105 permit ip whatever anyaccess-listing 105 let tcp host 10.0.54.5 whatever eq www
  admission-list 105 allow tcp host 10.0.seventy.23 host x.0.54.five eq xx
  access-list 105 permit tcp host ten.0.70.23 host x.0.54.5 eq 21
• admission-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.seventy.23 host x.0.54.v eq 20
  access-list 105 allow tcp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 eq 21
  access-list 105 allow tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 host 10.0.54.5 eq www
  access-list 105 deny ip any host 10.0.54.5
  access-list 105 allow ip whatsoever any*
• R2(config)# interface gi0/0
  R2(config-if)# ip access-group 105 in
• R1(config)# interface gi0/0
  R1(config-if)# ip admission-group 105 out*
• R1(config)# interface s0/0/0
  R1(config-if)# ip admission-group 105 out

121. Refer to the showroom. What can exist adamant from this output?

• The ACL is missing the deny ip any any ACE.
• Considering at that place are no matches for line 10, the ACL is not working.
• The ACL is just monitoring traffic destined for x.23.77.101 from 3 specific hosts.
• The router has not had any Telnet packets from ten.35.eighty.22 that are destined for 10.23.77.101.*

122. What is the only type of ACL available for IPv6?

• named standard
• named extended*
• numbered standard
• numbered extended

123. Which IPv6 ACL command entry will permit traffic from any host to an SMTP server on network 2001:DB8:10:10::/64?

• permit tcp whatsoever host 2001:DB8:ten:10::100 eq 25*
• permit tcp host 2001:DB8:10:10::100 whatsoever eq 25
• allow tcp any host 2001:DB8:x:10::100 eq 23
• permit tcp host 2001:DB8:10:ten::100 whatsoever eq 23

124. Refer to the exhibit. Considering how packets are processed on a router that is configured with ACLs, what is the correct club of the statements?

• C-B-A-D
• A-B-C-D
• C-B-D-A*
• B-A-D-C
• D-A-C-B

125. Which 2 hypervisors are suitable to back up virtual machines in a data center? (Choose two.)

• Virtual PC
• VMware Fusion
• VMware ESX/ESXi*
• Oracle VM VirtualBox
• Microsoft Hyper-V 2012*

126. How can DHCP spoofing attacks be mitigated?

• by disabling DTP negotiations on nontrunking ports
• by implementing DHCP snooping on trusted ports*
• by implementing port security
• past the application of the ip verify source command to untrusted ports

127. What activeness tin can a network ambassador take to assist mitigate the threat of VLAN attacks?

• Disable VTP.
• Configure all switch ports to be members of VLAN ane.
• Disable automatic trunking negotiation.*
• Enable PortFast on all switch ports.

128. Which SNMP message type informs the network management system (NMS) immediately of certain specified events?

• GET request
• Set request
• Get response
• Trap*

129. Refer to the exhibit. A SNMP manager is using the community string of snmpenable and is configured with the IP accost 172.sixteen.10.one. The SNMP director is unable to read configuration variables on the R1 SNMP agent. What could be the trouble?

• The SNMP agent is non configured for read-only access.
• The community of snmpenable2 is incorrectly configured on the SNMP amanuensis.
• The ACL is non permitting access by the SNMP manager.*
• The incorrect community cord is configured on the SNMP manager.

130. Refer to the exhibit. Which SNMP authentication password must be used by the member of the ADMIN grouping that is configured on router R1?

• cisco54321
• cisco98765
• cisco123456*
• cisco654321

131. A network ambassador has noticed an unusual corporeality of traffic being received on a switch port that is connected to a higher classroom computer. Which tool would the administrator utilize to make the suspicious traffic available for analysis at the college data center?

• RSPAN*
• TACACS+
• 802.1X
• DHCP snooping
• SNMP

132. What network monitoring tool copies traffic moving through one switch port, and sends the copied traffic to another switch port for assay?

• 802.i
• XSNMP
• Span*
• syslog

133. Voice packets are being received in a continuous stream by an IP phone, but because of network congestion the delay between each packet varies and is causing cleaved conversations. What term describes the crusade of this condition?

• buffering
• latency
• queuing
• jitter*

134. What mechanism compensates for jitter in an audio stream by buffering packets and then replaying them outbound in a steady stream?

• digital
• bespeak
• processor
• playout delay buffer*
• voice codecWFQ

135. Which blazon of network traffic cannot be managed using congestion avoidance tools?

• TCP
• UDP*
• IP
• ICMP

136. A network administrator has moved the visitor intranet web server from a switch port to a dedicated router interface. How can the administrator determine how this change has affected performance and availability on the company intranet?

• Carry a performance examination and compare with the baseline that was established previously.*
• Determine functioning on the intranet by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites.
• Interview departmental administrative assistants to make up one's mind if web pages are loading more than chop-chop.
• Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded in previous weeks.

137. In which stage of the troubleshooting procedure would ownership exist researched and documented?

• Gather symptoms.*
• Implement cosmetic activeness.
• Isolate the problem.
• Update the user and document the problem.

138. Which troubleshooting arroyo is more appropriate for a seasoned network administrator rather than a less-experienced network administrator?

• a less-structured approach based on an educated gauge*
• an approach comparing working and nonworking components to spot significant differences
• a structured approach starting with the physical layer and moving upwardly through the layers of the OSI model until the cause of the problem is identified
• an approach that starts with the cease-user applications and moves downward through the layers of the OSI model until the cause of the trouble has been identified

139. A router has been configured to use simulated network traffic in order to monitor the network performance between the router and a distant network device. Which command would display the results of this assay?

• show ip route
• showip protocols
• show ip sla statistics*
• evidence monitor

140. Which type of tool would an administrator use to capture packets that are going to and from a item device?

• NMS tool
• knowledge base of operations
• baselining tool
• protocol analyzer*

141. Refer to the showroom. Which 2 statements describe the results of inbound these commands? (Choose 2.)

• R1 will send system letters of levels 0 (emergencies) to level 4 (warnings) to a server.*
• R1 will not send critical system letters to the server until the command debug all is entered.
• R1 volition reset all the warnings to clear the log.R1 will output the system messages to the local RAM.
• The syslog server has the IPv4 address 192.168.10.10.*

142. Refer to the showroom. A network ambassador discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In add-on, host A has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?

• The router has an wrong gateway.
• Host A has an overlapping network address.
• Host A has an incorrect default gateway configured.
• Host A has an wrong subnet mask.
• NAT is required for the host A network.*

143. Friction match the operation to the appropriate QoS model.

144. Match the cloud model with the description.

145. Lucifer QoS techniques with the description. (Non all options are used.)

• traffic policing –> Excess traffic is dropped when the traffic rate reaches a preconfigured maximum.
• mark –> A value is added to a parcel header.
• traffic shaping –> Backlog traffic is retained in a queue and scheduled for later transmission over increments of fourth dimension.
• classification –> This determines the grade of traffic to which frames belong.
• empty –> TCP traffic is throttled to forbid tail driblet.

Version 5:

146. Which ii factors permit businesses to safely communicate and perform transactions using the Internet? (Choose ii.)

• security *
• addressing
• privacy *
• WAN applied science
• bandwidth

147. Which two statements almost DSL are true? (Choose two.)

• users are on a shared medium
• uses RF signal manual
• local loop can be up to 3.5 miles (v.5km)*
• physical and information link layers are divers by DOCSIS
• user connections are aggregated at a DSLAM located at the CO*

148. Which two statements are truthful regarding a PPP connection betwixt two Cisco routers? (Choose two.)

• LCP tests the quality of the link.*
• LCP manages pinch on the link.*
• Only a unmarried NCP is immune betwixt the two routers.
• NCP terminates the link when information exchange is complete.
• With CHAP authentication, the routers substitution plain text passwords.

149. A network administrator is asked to design a system to allow simultaneous access to the Internet for 250 users. The ISP can simply supply five public IP addresses for this network. What applied science tin can the ambassador use to accomplish this job?

• classful subnetting
• variable length subnet masks
• classless interdomain routing
• port-based Network Address Translation*

150. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is configuring NAT to provide Cyberspace access to the within network. Afterward the configuration is completed, users are unable to access the Internet. What is the cause of the problem?

• The NAT puddle is using an invalid address range.
• The inside and outside interfaces are backwards.
• The ACL is referencing the wrong network address.
• The NAT within source command is referring to the incorrect ACL.*

151. What is the expected behavior of an ADSL service?

• The download charge per unit is faster than the upload rate.*
• The upload rate is faster than the download rate.*
• The download and upload rates are the aforementioned.
• The user tin select the upload and download rates based on need.

152. A network administrator is troubleshooting the dynamic NAT that is configured on router R2. Which command tin can the administrator utilise to see the total number of active NAT translations and the number of addresses that are allocated from the NAT pool?

• R2# testify ip nat statistics*
• R2# show ip nat translations
• R2# show running-config
• R2# clear ip nat translation

153. Which type of traffic would most likely have problems when passing through a NAT device?

• Telnet
• IPsec*
• HTTP
• ICMP
• DNS

154. Refer to the exhibit. The inside local IP address of PC-A is 192.168.0.200. What volition be the inside global address of packets from PC-A after they are translated by R1?

• x.0.0.one
• 172.16.0.1
• 192.168.0.1
• 192.168.0.200
• 209.165.200.225*

155. Refer to the exhibit. What kind of NAT is being configured on R1?

• PAT
• dynamic NAT
• NAT overload
• port forwarding*

156. What benefit does NAT64 provide?

• It allows sites to use private IPv6 addresses and translates them to global IPv6 addresses.
• It allows sites to connect multiple IPv4 hosts to the Internet via the use of a single public IPv4 address.
• It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.*
• It allows sites to use private IPv4 addresses, and thus hides the internal addressing structure from hosts on public IPv4 networks.

157. What are three benefits of using Frame Relay for WAN connectivity? (Choose three.)

• QoS support using the IP precedence field
• one physical interface that can be used for several circuits*
• integrated encryption
• mature applied science*
• reasonable cost*
• seamless direct connectivity to an Ethernet LAN

158. The DLCI number assigned to a Frame Relay excursion is to be manually added on a point-to-point link. Which 3 subinterface commands could be used to complete the configuration? (Choose three.)

• bandwidth kilobits*
• encapsulation frame-relay
• frame-relay interface-dlci dlci*
• frame-relay map ip ip-accost dlci
• frame-relay map ip ip-address dlci circulate
• ip accost ip-accost mask*
• no shutdown

159. Which command can exist used to check the information almost congestion on a Frame Relay link?

• evidence frame-relay pvc*
• show frame-relay lmi
• prove interfaces
• show frame-relay map

160. Refer to the exhibit. A network ambassador has implemented the configuration in the displayed output. What is missing from the configuration that would exist preventing OSPF routing updates from passing to the Frame Relay service provider?

• The passive-interface command has non been issued on interface series 0/1/0.
• The circulate keyword has not been issued.*
• The direct continued neighbour should accept been identified by using static mapping.
• The control to disable split horizon has not been issued.

161. What is a feature of Frame Relay that allows customer data transmissions to dynamically "burst" over their CIR for short periods of time?

• The combination of LMI status messages and Inverse ARP messages enables the CIR to be exceeded.
• The physical circuits of the Frame Relay network are shared between subscribers and in that location may exist times when unused bandwidth is available.*
• Bursting is enabled by the configuration of multiple subinterfaces on one concrete interface.
• BECN and FECN letters notify the router that the CIR can be exceeded.

162. Which broadband technology would be all-time for a pocket-sized office that requires fast upstream connections?

• DSL
• fiber-to-the-home*
• cable
• WiMax

163. Which technology requires the use of PPPoE to provide PPP connections to customers?

• dialup analog modem
• dialup ISDN modem
• DSL*
• T1

164. Why is information technology useful to categorize networks by size when discussing network design?

• Knowing the number of continued devices will define how many multilayer switches will be necessary at the core layer​.
• Knowing the number of continued devices will define how many additional layers will be added to the three-tier hierarchical network design​.
• A high-level redundancy at the admission layer may be better implemented if the number of connected devices is known.​
• The complication of networking infrastructure will vary according to the number of connected devices.*

165. A company connects to one Internet access provider via multiple connections. What is the name given to this type of connection?

• unmarried-homed
• multihomed
• dual-multihomed
• dual-homed*

166. What is one advantage to designing networks in building block fashion for large companies?

• failure isolation*
• increased network access time
• coarse security control
• fewer required concrete resource

167. Which network module maintains the resource that employees, partners, and customers rely on to effectively create, interact, and collaborate with data?

• access-distribution
• services
• data center*
• enterprise edge

168. A group of Windows PCs in a new subnet has been added to an Ethernet network. When testing the connectivity, a technician finds that these PCs can access local network resources but not the Internet resources. To troubleshoot the trouble, the technician wants to initially confirm the IP accost and DNS configurations on the PCs, and too verify connectivity to the local router. Which three Windows CLI commands and utilities will provide the necessary information? (Cull three.)

• arp -a
• ipconfig*
• nslookup*
• ping*
• telnet
• tracert
• netsh interface ipv6 evidence neighbour

169. A squad of engineers has identified a solution to a significant network problem. The proposed solution is likely to affect disquisitional network infrastructure components. What should the team follow while implementing the solution to avoid interfering with other processes and infrastructure?

• change-control procedures*
• one of the layered troubleshooting approaches
• knowledge base guidelines
• syslog messages and reports

170. Which ii specialized troubleshooting tools tin can monitor the amount of traffic that passes through a switch? (Choose two.)

• TDR
• digital multimeter
• NAM*
• portable network analyzer*
• DTX cable analyzer

171. Which argument is a characteristic of SNMP MIBs?

• The MIB organizes variables in a flat fashion.
• The SNMP agent uses the SNMP manager to access information inside the MIB.​
• The NMS must take access to the MIB in gild for SNMP to operate properly.*
• The MIB construction for a given device includes but variables that are specific to that device or vendor.​

172. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 was configured by a network administrator to employ SNMP version 2. The following commands were issued:
R1(config)# snmp-server customs batonaug ro SNMP_ACL
R1(config)# snmp-server contact Wayne World
R1(config)# snmp-server host 192.168.1.3 version 2c batonaug
R1(config)# ip admission-listing standard SNMP_ACL
R1(config-std-nacl)# permit 192.168.ten.iii
Why is the administrator not able to get whatever data from R1?

• The snmp-server enable traps command is missing.​
• The snmp-server customs command needs to include the rw keyword.​
• There is a trouble with the ACL configuration.*
• The snmp-server location command is missing.​

173. What is used equally the default event logging destination for Cisco routers and switches?

• terminal line
• syslog server
• console line*
• workstation

174. In the data gathering process, which blazon of device volition listen for traffic, just only get together traffic statistics?

• NMS
• syslog server
• NetFlow collector*
• SNMP agent

175. Which three flows associated with consumer applications are supported by NetFlow collectors? (Choose iii.)

• bandwidth regulation
• accounting*
• billing*
• quality of service
• mistake correction
• network monitoring*

176. Which algorithm is considered insecure for use in IPsec encryption?

• 3DES*
• AES
• RSA
• SHA-1

177. Two corporations have merely completed a merger. The network engineer has been asked to connect the two corporate networks without the expense of leased lines. Which solution would exist the most cost constructive method of providing a proper and secure connection between the 2 corporate networks?

• Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility Client with SSL
• Cisco Secure Mobility Clientless SSL VPN
• Frame Relay
• remote access VPN using IPsec
• site-to-site VPN*

178. Refer to the exhibit. Which IP address is configured on the physical interface of the CORP router?

• ten.i.1.1
• 10.1.1.2
• 209.165.202.133*
• 209.165.202.134

179. What are three characteristics of the generic routing encapsulation (GRE) protocol? (Choose three.)

• GRE tunnels back up multicast traffic.*
• By default, GRE does not include any flow control mechanisms.*
• Developed by the IETF, GRE is a secure tunneling protocol that was designed for Cisco routers.*
• GRE uses AES for encryption unless otherwise specified.
• GRE creates additional overhead for packets that are traveling through the VPN.*
• GRE provides encapsulation for a unmarried protocol type that is traveling through the VPN.

180. Which 2 statements describe remote access VPNs? (Cull two.)

• Remote access VPNs are used to connect entire networks, such as a branch part to headquarters.
• End users are not enlightened that VPNs exists.
• A leased line is required to implement remote access VPNs.
• Client software is normally required to be able to access the network.*
• Remote admission VPNs support the needs of telecommuters and mobile users.*

181. Under which two categories of WAN connections does Frame Relay fit? (Choose two.)

• public infrastructure
• private infrastructure*
• dedicated
• Internet
• packet-switched*

182. What term is used to identify the betoken where the customer network ends and the service provider network begins?

• CSU/DSU
• the key office
• the local loop
• the demarcation signal*

183. Which two characteristics draw time-division multiplexing? (Choose two.)

• Traffic is allocated bandwidth across a single wire based on preassigned time slots.*
• Bandwidth is allocated to channels based on whether a station has data to transmit.
• Encoding applied science provides high information throughput in a minimum RF spectrum by supporting parallel data transmission.
• Depending on the configured Layer 2 protocol, data is transmitted across two or more channels via the use of time slots.
• Information capacity across a unmarried link increases as bits from multiple sources are transmitted using interleaved slices of time.*

184. A branch office uses a leased line to connect to the corporate network. The pb network engineer confirms connectivity betwixt users in the branch office, simply none of the users can access corporate headquarters. System logs signal that nothing has changed in the co-operative office network. What should the engineer consider next to resolve this network outage?

• The network technician for the co-operative function should troubleshoot the switched infrastructure.
• The arrangement administrator in the branch office should reconfigure the default gateway on the user PCs.
• The server ambassador in the branch office should reconfigure the DHCP server.
• The service provider for the co-operative office should troubleshoot the consequence starting from the bespeak of demarcation.*

185. Refer to the exhibit. Which three steps are required to configure Multilink PPP on the HQ router? (Choose three.)

• Assign the serial interfaces to the multilink bundle.*
• Assign the Fast Ethernet interface to the multilink bundle.
• Enable PPP encapsulation on the multilink interface.
• Enable PPP encapsulation on the serial interfaces.*
• Bind the multilink parcel to the Fast Ethernet interface.
• Create and configure the multilink interface.*

186. What is required for a host to use an SSL VPN to connect to a remote network device?

• VPN client software must be installed.
• A site-to-site VPN must be preconfigured.
• A web browser must be installed on the host.*
• The host must be connected to a wired network.

187. What type of information is collected past Cisco NetFlow?

• interface errors
• CPU usage
• memory usage
• traffic statistics*

188. What is a disadvantage of a packet-switched network compared to a circuit-switched network?

• fixed chapters
• higher latency*
• less flexibility
• higher price

189. Which three parts of a Frame Relay Layer two PDU are used for congestion control? (Choose three.)

• the FECN bit*
• the BECN fleck*
• the C/R chip
• the ten-bit DLCI
• the Extended Address field
• the DE scrap*

190. Which two statements correctly describe asymmetric encryption used with an IPsec VPN? (Choose 2.)

• The aforementioned encryption keys must be manually configured on each device.
• Public key encryption is a type of asymmetric encryption.*
• Encryption and decryption use a different cardinal.*
• A shared secret key is used to perform encryption and descryption.
• AES is an case of an asymmetric encryption protocol.

191. What are two examples of network problems that are found at the data link layer? (Choose ii.)

• incorrect interface clock rates
• late collisions and jabber
• framing errors*
• electromagnetic interface
• encapsulation errors*

192. Which IEEE standard defines the WiMax engineering?

• 802.5
• 802.11
• 802.xvi*
• 802.3

193. Place the options in the following club:


Outside global*
– non scored –
Exterior local*
Inside global*
– not scored –
Inside local*

194. What is the default location for Cisco routers and switches to send critical logging events?

• syslog server*
• virtual terminal
• console port*
• auxiliary port

195. What is a type of VPN that is generally transparent to the end user?

• remote access*
• public
• site-to-site*
• private

196. Refer to the exhibit. Which three events will occur equally a result of the configuration shown on R1? (Choose iii.)

• Simply traffic that originates from the GigabitEthernet 0/1 interface will be monitored.
• Messages that are sent to the syslog server will be express to levels iii or lower.*
• Letters that are sent to the syslog server will apply 192.168.1.5 as the destination IP address.*
• The syslog messages will contain the IP accost the GigabitEthernet 0/1 interface.*
• Messages that are sent to the syslog server will be limited to levels 3 and higher.
• For multiple occurrences of the same fault, only the beginning three messages will exist sent to the server.

197. Which two technologies are implemented by organizations to support teleworker remote connections? (Choose two.)

• CMTS
• VPN*
• CDMA*
• IPsec*
• DOCSIS

198. How many 64 kb/s voice channels are combined to produce a T1 line?

• viii
• 32
• 24*
• 16

199. What is the purpose of a message hash in a VPN connection?

• It ensures that the data is coming from the correct source.
• Information technology ensures that the information cannot be duplicated and replayed to the destination.
• It ensures that the data has not changed while in transit.*
• It ensures that the data cannot be read in plain text.*

200. Users are reporting longer delays in hallmark and in accessing network resource during certain fourth dimension periods of the week. What kind of information should network engineers check to discover out if this situation is part of a normal network behavior?

• network configuration files
• syslog records and messages
• debug output and package captures
• the network performance baseline*

201. Which structured engineering desing principle ensures that the network reamins available fifty-fifty nether aberrant conditions?

• resiliency*
• hierarchy
• flexibility
• modularity

202. A team of engineers has identified a solution to a meaning network problem. The proposed solution is likely to affect critical network infrastruture components. What should the team follow while implementing the solution to avoid interfering with other processes and infrastructure?

• suslog messages and reports
• ane of the layered troubleshooting approaches
• change-control procedures*
• noesis base of operations guidelines

203. What is a Frame Relay feauture that supports the IP address-to-DLCI dynamic mapping?

• FECN
• Inverse ARP*
• ARP
• BECN

204. A pocket-sized remote office needs to connect to headquarters through a secure IPsec VPN connection. The company is implementing the Cisco Easy VPN solution. Which Cisco Like shooting fish in a barrel VPN component needs to be added on the Cisco router at the remote function?

• Cisco AnyConnect
• Cisco Easy VPN Server*
• Cisco Easy VPN Remote
• Cisco VPN Client

205. Which scenario would require the utilise of static NAT?

• when an internal corporate web server needs to be accessed from a home network*
• when there are more internal individual IP addresses than available public IP addresses
• when all public IP addresses have been exhausted
• when an IPv4 site connects to an IPv6 site

206. An organization has purchased a Frame Relay service from a provider. The service agreement specifies that the access rate is 512 kbps, the CIR is 384 kbps, and the Bc is 32 kbps. What will happen when the customer sends a curt burst of frames to a higher place 450 kbps?

• The frames are marked with the DE scrap set to one and are most probable forwarded.
• The frames are marked with the DE chip set to 0 and are well-nigh likely forwarded.
• The frames are marked with the DE bit fix to 0 and are allowed to laissez passer.
• The frames are marked with the DE bit gear up to 1 and are nigh likely dropped.*

207. What is a Frame Relay characteristic that supports the IP address-to-DLCI dynamic mapping?

• Inverse ARP*
• ARP
• BECN
• FECN

208. An administrator wants to configure a router so that users on the exterior network tin can simply establish HTTP connections to the internal web site by navigating to http://world wide web.netacad.com:8888. Which characteristic would the administrator configure to accomplish this?

• port forwarding*
• dynamic NAT
• NAT overload
• static NAT
• PAT

209. Which ii components are needed to provide a DSL connection to a SOHO? (Choose ii.)

• PPPoE enabled switch
• CMTS
• transceiver*
• CM
• DSLAM*

210. A network engineer is troubleshooting an unsuccessful PPP multilink connection between two routers. That multilink interface has been created and assigned a number, the interface has been enabled for multilink PPP, and the interface has been assigned a multilink group number that matches the group assigned to the fellow member physical series interfaces. The physical series interfaces have besides been enabled for PPP multilink. Which additional command should to be issued on the multilink interface?

• clock rate 4000000 *
• encapsulation ppp
• ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.252
• no ip address

211. What is the international standard defining cable-related technologies?

• WiMax
• DOCSIS*
• ADSL
• PPPoE

212. Which three statements describe characteristics of converging corporate network architecture?

• Server applications are housed within the phisical corporate
• network.*
• Users connect their own devices to the corporate network.*
• Information types include information, and video.*
• Users have to utilise visitor-owned computers.
• Networks are borderless.

213. Which inefficient feature of time-sectionalisation multiplexing does statistical TDM overcome?

• the unused high speed time slots*
• the buffering of data during peak periods
• the use of channel identifiers
• the use of a multiplexer at the transmitter and receiver

214. What are three characteristics of SSL VPNs?

• authentication can be one mode*
• hallmark uses shared secret or digital cerificates*
• an ssl vpn supports web enable applications, east-mail and file sharing*
• connecting may challeenge nontechnical users
• encryption requires central lengths from 40 bits to 256 bits
• an ssl vpn requires specific configuration of PCs to connect

215. A network engineer is designing an IPsec VPN between Cisco routers for a national bank. Which algorithm assures the highest level of confidentiality for data crossing the VPN?

• 256bit AES*
• 512 bit RSA
• SHA-ane
• 3DES

216. By the employ of sequence numbers, which office of the IPsec security services prevents spoofing by verifying that each packet is non-duplicated and unique?

• anti-replay protection*
• confidentiality
• data integrity
• hallmark

217. A modest police firm wants to connect to the Cyberspace at relatively high speed but with depression cost. In addition, the firm prefers that the connection exist through a defended link to the service provider. Which connection blazon should be selected?

• leased line*
• ISDN
• cable
• DSL

218. How can an ambassador configure a Cisco Easy VPN Server to enable the company to manage many remote VPN connections efficiently?

• by updating the client software in regular intervals
• by preconfiguring IPsec parameters when deploying the client solution
• past provisioning dedicated bandwidth for VPN connections
• by pushing the IPsec security policies to the clients when establishing the tunnel*

219. How does QoS improve the effectiveness of teleworking?

• It provides wireless data transmission over large urban areas.
• It provides high speed connections over copper wires.
• Information technology provides better service for VoIP and video conferencing applications.*
• It provides authentication, accounting, and link management features for ISPs.

220. Which two networking technologies enable businesses to utilise the Internet, instead of an enterprise WAN, to securely interconnect their distributed networks? (Choose two.)

• DSL
• remote LANs
• remote access VPNs*
• site-to-site VPNs*
• Frame Relay

221. What are 2 benefits of using SNMP traps? (Choose two.)

• They eliminate the demand for some periodic polling requests.*
• They reduce the load on network and agent resources.*
• They can provide statistics on TCP/IP packets that catamenia through Cisco devices.
• They can passively listen for exported NetFlow datagrams.
• They limit admission for management systems only.

New Questions (v6.0):

222. A network engineer has issued the show interfaces serial 0/0/0 command on a router to examine the open NCPs on a PPP link to another router. The command output displays that the encapsulation is PPP and that the LCP is open. However, the IPV6CP NCP is not shown as open up. What does the engineer need to configure to open up the IPV6CP NCP on the link?

• Configure an IPv6 address on each interface on the link.*
• Configure PPP multilink interfaces on each router.
• Issue the compress predictor command on each interface on the link.
• Configure CHAP authentication on each router.

223. What address translation is performed by static NAT?

• An inside local address is translated to a specified inside global address*
• An within local accost is translated to a specified exterior local address
• An inside local address is translated to a specified exterior global address
• An outside local address is translated to a specified outside global address

224. What are two advantages of using IPv4 NAT? (Choose two.)

• provides consistent traceability when it is necessary to troubleshoot internal corporate network problems
• conserves public IP addresses*
• provides consistency when an internal corporate IP addressing scheme is existence designed*
• allows maintaining end-to-end addressing
• increases network performance

225. Which network pattern module would not commonly connect to the service provider edge?

• Remote Access and VPN **
• E-Commerce
• Enterprise Branch
• WAN Site-to-site VPN

226. Whichtwo types of devices are specific to WAN environments and are not institute ona LAN?(Choose 2.)

• Distribution layer router
• Broadband modem*
• Core switch
• Admission layer switch
• CSU/DSU*

227. What is a plausible reason that an employee would become a teleworker for a company?

• to become employed without having to share files or resourcesto
• become employed in a traditional workplace
• to go along employment during a fourth dimension of rehabilitation
• to keep employment without having to adhere to company regulations*

228. Connecting offices at different locations using the Net can exist economical for a concern. What are ii important business policy problems that should be addressed when using the Net for this purpose? (Choose 2.)

• WAN engineering science
• bandwidth
• security*
• privacy
• addressing*

229. A technician at a remote location is troubleshooting a router and has emailed partial debug command output to a network engineer at the fundamental office. The message that is received by the engineer just contains a number of LCP letters that relate to a series interface. Which WAN protocol is being used on the link?

• HDLC
• VPN
• Frame Relay
• PPP*

230. What is a feature of physical point-to-point WAN links?

• Point-to-point links are generally the least expensive type of WAN admission.
• The MAC address is not used in the address field of the indicate-to-point frame.*
• WAN operations focus primarily on the network layer (OSI Layer 3)​.
• Bespeak-to-point WAN services are circuit switched.

231. Which PPP protocol allows a device to specify an IP address for routing over the PPP link?

• CHAP
• LCP
• PAP
• IPCP*

232. Which 2 statements depict benefits of NAT? (Choose two.)

• NAT simplifies troubleshooting past removing the need for finish-to-end traceability.
• NAT can provide application port-level multiplexing in guild to conserve public IP addresses.*
• NAT allows for piece of cake readdressing when changing ISPs.
• NAT makes tunneling protocols like IPsec more than efficient by modifying the addresses in the headers.
• NAT provides stateful package filtering features similar to a firewall.*
• NAT increases router performance by reducing the number of routes needed in the routing table.

233. What is 1 drawback to using the top-downward method of troubleshooting?

• trying to decide which device to cheque outset
• the amount of paperwork that is generated
• the need to check every device and interface on the network and document them
• the need to check every possible application problem and document it*

234. What are three functions provided past syslog service? (Choose three.)

• to specify the destination of captured messages *
• to provide traffic analysis
• to assemble logging information for monitoring and troubleshooting *
• to select the type of logging data that is captured *
• to periodically poll agents for data
• to provide statistics on packets that are flowing through a Cisco device

235. Which two types of equipment are needed to send digital modem signals upstream and downstream on a cable system? (Choose two.)

• DSLAM
• CMTS*
• transceiver
• microfilter
• cable modem*

236. What two advantages are associated with Frame Relay WAN technology when compared with leased lines? (Cull two.)

• Dedicated information path betwixt sites
• Fixed and dedicated chapters
• Flexibility*
• Globally unique DLCI for each site
• Cost effectieness*

237. Which statement describes an reward of deploying the Cisco SSL VPN solution rather than the Cisco Easy VPN solution?

• It provides a stronger authentication machinery.
• It provides more network service access.
• It provides a stronger encryption algorithm.
• It supports clientless remote access.*

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